Foucault, Habermas, public and private space

Foucault emphasizes the difference between open, readable sexual discourses, and hidden and coded sexual discourses. This coupled with the ("official") relegation of sexuality to the home/parents' bedroom and to the brothel, away from public spaces, made me think of the last pm theorist we read who was also highly concerned with public and private spaces.

I think Habermas would agree with Foucault that the discussion of sexuality that now takes place in public, both the repression and liberation-driven discourses alike, has been hollowed out and no longer exerts notable traction on much of anything.

Can other people think of more parallels? I know Habermas' mistrust of tradition does not run nearly as deep, but my gut is that there is probably more to their contemporary dissatisfactions than meets the eye. Where else are they compatible, or is the compatibility that I'm reading itself misplaced?

And a non-sequitur, sort of--is the closeting of homosexuality an exception to the pre 1700s sexual openness that Foucault identifies? I'm thinking strictly European here, about the Medieval era up until the Enlightenment. Obviously the ancient Greeks were fairly open about homosexuality, especially by comparison, but what about modern (darn that flexible word!) Europe? Homosexuality is one of the heavily silenced sexualities post-epist/onto rupture, but did that constitute much of a change, compared to say, making open discussion and the visibility of heterosexual sex taboo?